10-19-2009, 05:54 PM
Roj Wrote:Lorake Wrote:This simply does not work. How did you magically come up with this part?Lorake Wrote:Now for the fun part:
Probability of a random person in raid getting targetted Y times in a row with X amount of chases
F(X,Y) = 0 when Y>X
F(X,Y) = 1 when Y = 1 *Edit: broke my own equation LOL
F(X,Y) = .04^(Y-1) + .96F(X-1,Y)
So targetted 2 times with 2 chases, F(2,2)
F(2,2) = .04 + .96F(1,2)
F(1,2) = 0 thus F(2,2) = .04
2 times with 3 chases
F(3,2) = .04 + .96F(2,2) = .0784
and it goes from there. If you think I'm wrong break it with a case, otherwise your arguements are invalid and retarded.
Edited, fixed a typo. F(X,Y) = 1 when Y = 1 obviously, since it's a 100% chance for anub to follow someone.
Lorake Wrote:F(1,2) = 0Your equation is broken. Copy/paste something better.
Given that X is the amount of times he's going to chase someone, and Y is the number of back to back chases he needs to do, tell me what's the probability he's gonna chase someone Y times when X is less than Y.
0 obviously, he doesn't have enough chases left.
When Y = 1, he just has to chase someone, so it's obvious F(X,1) = 1 since 1 = 100%
